References to the Trinity

The Trinity (an unfalsifiable doctrine of the Church) is not mentioned a single time in Scripture.  And it's only referenced twice in the entirety of Scripture:  Both times in the New Testament, and both times being additions to Scripture.  These passages are 1 John 5:7-8 and Matthew 28:19.

Let's take a look at the passage in 1 John 5:7-8:  Looking at the footnote from the NIV ["Late manuscripts of the Vulgate testify in heaven: the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. 8 And there are three that testify on earth: the (not found in any Greek manuscript before the fourteenth century)"], it's clear that the reference to the trinity was added to the passage, much, much later than when the passage was written.  The passage was written some time between 30 and 70 A.D. and never had a reference to the Trinity until the 14th century.  Notice that the NIV footnote says "Late manuscripts of the Vulgate".  This means that even the Vulgate originally never had references to the Trinity until much later, meaning that the Catholic Church had changed their own manuscripts to better suit their doctrine.

The next passage is Matthew 28:19, which reads "Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" [NIV].  It should be noticed that this command to baptize people in the name of the Trinity was never followed by the disciples.  They always baptized in the name of Jesus and only in the name of Jesus.  And nobody received any visions correcting them for it.  The Disciples had a near perfect track record of following Jesus' commands.  It is highly unlikely that they would blunder at this one.  And it's even more unlikely that Jesus would not correct any of them after such an error.  Instead, people are referred to as having been baptized with the Holy Spirit [Acts 1:5; Acts 11:16], but not in the name of the Holy Spirit, or in the name of the Father.  Yet they still received the Holy Spirit.  But if this was the wrong mode of baptism, then nobody would have received the Holy Spirit.

It is more likely that Matthew 28:19 says "Therefore go and make disciples of all nations in my name" or "Therefore go and make disciples of all nations" or "Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in my name".  The earliest Greek manuscripts that have been found have the current version of the verse, so the Church argues that the current rendering of Matthew 28:19 is correct.  However, the New Testament wasn't written in Greek.  It was written in Hebrew.  Some manuscripts were translated directly from Hebrew to Greek while others were translated into Aramaic before being translated into Greek.  It would be during this translation process that this change occurred, especially if Matthew was first translated into Aramaic.  The best counter argument I've seen so far is that the different rendering contradicts the KJV.